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시험 번호/코드: 7004-1
시험 이름: Avaya (Avaya Communication Server 1000 for Avaya Aura® Maintenance Exam)
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Q&A: 66 문항
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NO.1 An administrator is programming an NRS for the first time on a new Communication Server 1000
system RIS. 7.0 system. When attempting to add the Service Domain, it cannot be added as the Add
button is grayed out in the NRS.
Which tasked should you perform to resolve this issue?
A. reinstall the Signaling Server Software
B. reinstall the NRS software
C. switch from Standby database to Active database
D. switch from Active database to Standby database
Answer: D

Avaya기출문제   7004-1   7004-1기출문제

NO.2 For a situation where you use the CDP feature at a switch equipped with the MARS software package,
which statement are correct? (Choose two)
A. Use steering codes tor CDP calls that are the same as the assignedNARS Access Cades.
B. Use steering codes tor CDP calls that aredistinct from thoseassigned NARS Access Cades.
C. You can integrate CDP numbers with the NARS Uniform Dialing Plan (UDP).
D. Youcannot shareRoute Lists,Digit Manipulation tables and Time-of-Day schedule withNARS.
Answer: B,C

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NO.3 Click the Exhibit button.
Given the customer Route List index shown in the exhibit, what is the first expensive route that a
call placed on that RLI could take?
A. Entry 0
B. Entry 1
C. Entry 2
D. Entry 3
Answer: C

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NO.4 Click the Exhibit button.
Consider a company ¯ s di ali ng pl an shown i n t he exhi bit and an exa mpl e f or it s r equi r e ment s:
A station user at the company, with Location Code 221, placed an ESN call, dialing 7-221-2581. This
would be an On-Net call and the NARS programming must remove the LOC code and dial the DN
internally.
What programming would remove the location code for a call dialed within the originating Communication
Server 1000 to a DN on that same Communication Server 1000?
A. Each site would have its own Location Code programmed as a Home Location Code(HLOC) under
Translation Table #1 in their CS 1000.
B. The location codes for each site would be programmed under the LOC programming in Translation
Table #2 at all locations.
C. Home NPA Codes (HNPA) for each site would be programmed under Translation Table #1 at each
location in their CS 1000.
D. Each site would have the Location Codesfor all sites programmed as Home Location Codes (HLOC) in
Translation Table #1 of their CS 1000.
Answer: A

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NO.5 A customer has deployed a Communication Server 1000 RIs. 7 x system at their site. Their sales
department is expanding and you have been asked to add Ave new telephones with the same capabilities
as the existing telephones in the department.
Which programming command should you use to complete this task.?
A. Move to DN
B. Move from TN
C. Copy from DN
D. Copy from TN
Answer: D

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NO.6 The Satellite Link Control feature ensures that the configuration of a call does not include more than one
communications satellite trunk. Tandem trunk calls, when connected through more than one
communication satellite trunk, are subject to transmission distortion due to propagation.
Which parameters are required to be equipped or configured for Satellite Link Control in the
Communication Server 1000?
A. Network Signaling (NSIG) package must be equipped.
Route must be configured with ESN3 signaling.
Route must be designated as a satellite route.
B. Route must be configured with STD or ETN signaling.
Route must be designated as a satellite route.
C. Network Transfer (NXFR) package must be equipped.
Route must be configured with ESN2 or ESN3 signaling
Route must be designated as a satellite route.
D. Network Signaling (NSIG) package must be equipped.
Route must be configured with ESN3 or ESN5 signaling.
Route must be programmed with a Traveling Class of Service (TCOS)
Answer: A

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NO.7 Click the Exhibit button.
Given the customer ¯ s pr ogr a mmed dat abase shown i n t he exhi bit and AC 1 = 9, over whi ch RLI will a call
placed to 9-1-912-534-2222 complete?
A. RLI 9
B. RLI 4
C. RLI 3
D. RLI 2
E. call will not complete as dialed
Answer: B

Avaya   7004-1기출문제   7004-1   7004-1기출문제

NO.8 A customer has a Communication Server 1000 RIs. 7 x system at their site. You have been asked to
add the Call Pickup feature to the ten IP telephones in the sales department. The customer wants to be
sure active calls are not lost when the change are made.
Which Phones Configuration feature can be enabled allowed you to ensure changes to the telephones
are not transmitted to the call server until the telephone is not busy?
A. Bulk change
B. Courtesy change
C. Group change
D. Template change
Answer: B

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NO.9 Click the Exhibit button.
A customer has asked if the Communication Server 1000 RIs. 7 x system can route anyone that dial an
unassigned number in the customer ¯ s DI D r ange t o t he Att endant.
In reviewing the current configuration as shown in the exhibit, what do you conclude?
(Choose two)
A. only internalstation users are routing to the Attendant
B. internal station users and non tie line users are routing to the Attendant
C. all caller types are receiving an overflow tone
D. NET_DATA Attendant and tie trunk users are receiving an overflow tone
Answer: B

Avaya   7004-1   7004-1

NO.10 Click the Exhibit button.
Given the SDRR programming options shown in the exhibit, which SDRR programming would allow a
user to dial 1-900-867-3333, but not successfully dial any other 1-900 based number?
A. Table 1
B. Table 2
C. Table 3
D. Table 4
Answer: A

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시험 번호/코드: 6102
시험 이름: Avaya (Avaya Virtual Services Platform 9000 Implementation Exam)
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Q&A: 67 문항
업데이트: 2014-04-28

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NO.1 In the current business environment everyone is being asked to do more with fewer physical
resources. Using visualization allows the Virtual Services Platform (VSP) 9000 to initiate the services
provided.By using VRF-Lite, what does the VSP 9000 eliminate the need for?
A. SMLT
B. RSMLT
C. Non-overlapping addresses
D. Multiple physical router
Answer: D

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NO.2 Simple Loop Prevention Protocol (SLPP) provides active protection against layer 2 network
loops on a per-VLAN basis. For the SLPP Tx process, the network administrator decides on which
VLANs to enable SLPP. The hello packets are then replicated out all ports that are members of
the SLPP-enabled VLAN. Given the following information:
A = InterSwitch Trunk (IST)
B = Split MultiLink Trunk (SMLT)
#1 VSP 9000
#2 VSP 9000
#3 ERS 4500
When setting up the SLPP Rx process, which configuration role is setup on VSP #1
A. The VSP #1 Rx process is enabled on all VLANs to monitor for the VSP #3 SLPP packets.
B. The VSP # 1 Rx process is enabled on port 3/1 and the IST ports to monitor for the VSP #2
SLPP packets.
C. The VSP #1 Rx process is enabled on all SMLT VLANs to monitor for the VSP #2 SLPP
packets.
D. The VSP #1 Rx process is enabled on port 3/1 to monitor for the VSP #2 SLPP packets.
Answer: D

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NO.3 A technician has enabled VLACP on the IST connection, and wants, to verify that is operating
properly. When using the show vlacp interface command, what is the timeout value for the IST
connection?
A. short
B. 3,000
C. 500
D. slow
E. long
Answer: E

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NO.4 Which three are secure protocols that Virtual Services Platform (VSP) 9000 supports? (Choose
three)
A. SNMPv3
B. HTTPS
C. FTP
D. SNMPv2
E. SSH
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.5 A Virtual Services Platform (VSP) 9000 chassis will need to terminate the following
connections:
four 10GbE: 10GBaseER core connections in a redundant DMLT configuration 80 GbE
1000BaseLX single uplink connections to the edge stackable switches two Copper 1000BaseT
connections to a couple of directly attached IDS appliances
The 10GbE core connections must ensure non-blocking performance.
Which hardware configuration is the most cost effective and meets the above requirements?
A. Install two 9024XL cards, two 9048GB cards, one 9048GB card.
B. Install two 9024XL cards, two 9048GB cards.
C. Install two 9024XL cards, one 9048GB card, one 9048GT card.
D. Install three 9024XL cards.
Answer: C

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NO.6 A campus network requirement is to introduce Virtual Routing and Forwarding (VRF) in the
existing Virtual Services Platform (VSP) 9000 core. The technician needs to configure VRF on the VSP
9000. Which statement represents the proper order for configuring a new VRF?
A. Create a new VLAN, add an IP address, create a VRF, and move the VLAN to the new VRF.
B. Create a VRF, add an IP address, create a new VLAN, and move the VLAN to the new VRF.
C. Create a VRF, create a new VLAN, add an IP address, and move the VLAN to the new VRF.
D. Create VRF, create a new VLAN, move the VLAN to the new VRF, and add an IP address.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Flight Recorder can be used on the Virtual Services Platform (VSP) 9000 to help identify
problems. When can a Flight Recorder snapshot be taken?
A. When the VSP has to be booted into the diagnostic mode
B. Only after a warning message is logged
C. Anytime
D. Every hour
Answer: C

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NO.8 A Virtual Services Platform (VSP) 9000 chassis has the following connections:
Four 10GBaseER core connections in ports 3/4 , 3/8, 4/4, 4/8 (9024XL cards)
40 Copper 100BaseT connections for server aggregation (9048GT card)
How many Switch Fabric (SF) modules need to be installed in the roar of the chassis to ensure that
all of the IO cards operate at full performance, even if a single SF modules fails (n + 1 SF
redundancy)?
A. Install three SFs in St modules 1, 2, 4.
B. Install four SFs in SF modules 1, 2, 3, 4.
C. Install five SFs in SF modules 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.
D. Install six SFs in SF modules 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6.
Answer: D

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NO.9 The Chassis Area Network (CAN) uses the SERDES to connect which modules in the Virtual
Services Platform (VSP) 9000?
A. Switch Fabric cards and I/O cards
B. CP curds and Switch Fabric cards
C. CP cards and Switch Fabrics in slots 1 & 4
D. All 10 I/O cards, six SF cards and two CP cards
E. CP cards and all I/O cards
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which statement about the local router MAC addresses on RSMLT aggregation switches
(cluster)
is true?
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used in case of switch failure.
B. On a RSMLT aggregation switch pair, local router MAC addresses are exchanged, and used for
data forwarding.
C. On a RSMLT aggregation switch pair, local virtual MAC addresses is exchanged, and used for
data forwarding.
D. RSMLT aggregation switches are not exchanging local router MAC addresses, but are using
the IP destination address to forward traffic.
Answer: B

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시험 번호/코드: 3104
시험 이름: Avaya (Avaya one-X® UC Soft Clients Implementation and Maintenance Exam)
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NO.1 Which Avaya product performs the SIP network routing for Avaya one-X® CES?
A. Session Manager
B. Application Enablement Services
C. Communication Manager
D. System Manager
Answer: A

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5. When setting up the Presence Server in Avaya one-X® CES, you see that the Management
Service must be established.
Which IP address is used for the host Management Service?
A. Session Manager
B. Communication Manager
C. System Manager
D. System Platform
Answer: C

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6. To prepare for the installation of the Avaya one-X® CES solution template, a new administrator
account was added to the admin security group in the enterprise Directory. When trying to login to
the Avaya one-X® CES server, you receive the error message The User name or password you
provided not recognized.
Which troubleshooting action should you take do to resolve problem?
A. Login to the Enterprise Directory and verify the user name.
B. Login as admin and change the user name in the Avaya one-X® CES server.
C. Login to the System Manager/User management/Users and synchronize the System manager
with the Avaya one-X® CES server.
D. Login to the System Platform and edit the user name.
Answer: C

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7. You are in the process of investigating an error in the General Logging log. You first look at the
systemOut.log and you see that the protocol Aspect is enabled.
What is the other General log file you need to check to determine what the problem is?
A. SNMP log file
B. SAL log file
C. Trace.log file
D. Avaya one-X® CES log file
Answer: C

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8. While setting up the interface to Avaya Aura® Conferencing, one of the values is the BCAPI
host.
Which IP address is the BCAPI host?
A. Avaya Web Conferencing
B. Bridge
C. Web Portal
D. Conference Manager
Answer: A

Avaya   3104   3104   3104
9. After the completion of Avaya one-X® CES solution template, you find that the transcoding
service
is unable to connect to the Transcoding Server in the Avaya one-X® CES system, you see that
the state is unavailable.
Which troubleshooting steps are needed to resolve problem?
A. Verify that the property values in the Transcoding server is Same as what is stated in the
System Manager server.
Determine that the /tmp/transcoding directory is present on the transcoding server
Verify the Host IP address
Restart the Avaya one-X® CES server
B. Ensure the /tmp/transcoding directory is Present on the handset Server
Verify the Host IP address is the same as the loopback IP address
Restart the transcoding Server.
C. Ensure the /tmp/transcoding Server is the same as what is stated on the Avaya one-X CES
admin web site.
Determine that the /tmp/transcoding directory is present on the Avaya one-X CES server.
Verify the host IP address is same as the loopback IP address.
D. Update the Avaya one-X CES Transcoding Services value via the Admin page.
Verify that the Host IP address and the loopback IP address are not same.
Restart the Transcoding server.
Answer: A

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10. You have a case where the calls to the user gets routed to Avaya one-X® Mobile and
voicemail at
the same time. You have verified that the user’s desktop telephone is set to Send all calls,
however, the Avaya one-X® Mobile device is disabled and the calls are registering as a call entry.
Which statement correctly describes the solution to this problem?
A. Set Avaya one-X® Mobile client to Send all Calls on the mobile device when the Avaya
Deskphone is set to Block All Calls.
B. Set Avaya one-X® Mobile client to Block all calls on the mobile device when Avaya Deskphone
is set to Block All Calls.
C. Set Avaya one-X® Mobile client to Block all calls on the mobile device when Avaya Deskphone
is set to Send All Calls.
D. Set Avaya one-X® Mobile client to Send all calls on the mobile device when Avaya Deskphone
is set to Send All Calls.
Answer: C

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NO.2 While at a customer site, an out-of-memory space permanent generation (PermGen) error
occurs.
Which troubleshooting steps you perform so that error does not occur again?
A. Delete the template
Restart Tomcat (log into Communication Manager as admin)
Type: /sbin/service/ reboot.
Installthe template
B. Delete the template
Restart Tomcat (log into the Avaya one-X® CES server as admin)
Type: /sbin/service tomcat restart
Install all template
C. Delete the template
Restart Tomcat (log into System Manager as admin/su to root)
Type: /sbin/service tomcat reboot
Login to the System Platform Web console
Install the template
D. Delete the template
Restart Tomcat (log into cdom as admin/su to root)
Type: /sbin/service tomcat restart
Login to the System Platform Web console
Install the template
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which two servers are optional with regard to the Restart the CES solution? (Choose two)
A. Session Manager
B. LDAP
C. Communication Manager
D. Presence
Answer: B,D

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NO.4 The Avaya one-X® Client Enablement Services (CES) has the choice of template sizes.
Which factor is used to decide the template size?
A. Extra feature purchased by the customer
B. The version of System Platform
C. The server type
D. The type of mobile devise that is being integrated into Avaya one-X® CES
Answer: C

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시험 이름: Avaya (Avaya Aura Conferencing (R7.x) Implementation and Maintenance Exam)
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NO.1 On the Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 system, which two actions are involved in configuring the
Media Server and Media Server cluster? (Choose two)
A. Log onto Provisioning Manager and configure it under “Conference of Service”.
B. Log onto the EM console, and configure it in the sub menu “Media Server Resource” under the
Feature Server Elements.
C. Log on to Provisioning Manager and configure “Media Server Resource” under System
Management Tab.
D. Log onto WCS server and configure the Media Resource in the Collaboration Agent window.
Answer: B

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NO.2 An administrator has a new license file for Avaya Aura® conferencing 7.
Which step should the administrator take to install the new license file?
A. Log onto the Communications Manager CDOM, then go to license and copy and paste the new
license file.
B. Log onto the Conferencing 7, then go to Element Manager and upload the new license file.
C. Log onto System Manager, then go to License and upload the new license file.
D. Log onto the System Manager CDOM, then go to Security and copy and paste the new license
file.
Answer: B

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6. The Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 system has 10 components.
Which two components are parts of the Web Server Group? (Choose two.)
A. Web Collaboration Management Server (WCMS)
B. Avaya Media Server (AMS)
C. Document Conversion Server (DCS)
D. Application Server (AS)
Answer: A,B

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7. During installation of the Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 software, which prompt will the installer
receive?
A. The staging username
B. The deployment type or staging file to be used
C. The operations file be used
D. The operations file or deployment name to be used
Answer: B

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8. The conferencing moderator dialed into the conference room successfully using moderator
code,
and was also able to successfully launch Collaboration Agent. However, the web conference could
not be launched from the Collaboration Agent.
What is causing this problem?
A. During the conference user provisioning, the conference administrator did not enable the Web
Conferencing Server feature specific to this user.
B. The web conferencing URL was not added to the hosts file on the Media Server.
C. The Web Conference Server Was not added or configured in Provisioning manager.
D. The Document Conversation Server was not configured.
Answer: C

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NO.3 When viewing alarms in the browser, what is the default order that alarms appear?
A. Warning, Minor, Major, Critical
B. Major, Critical, Minor, Warning
C. Minor, Warning, Critical, Major
D. Critical, Major, Minor, Warning
Answer: A

Avaya자격증   3202   3202   3202

NO.4 What is the requirement for Avaya Media Servers to be grouped into an Avaya Media Server
Cluster?
A. They must share the system default setting.
B. They must share common power supply.
C. They must share the same physical location.
D. They must share the same server name.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which SIP Monitoring field must be selected to allow the System Manager to manage
bandwidth
on the Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 SIP Entity?
A. SIP Link Monitoring
B. Supports Call Admission Control
C. Primary Session Manager Bandwidth Association
D. SIP Domain
Answer: A

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NO.1 You want to see a list of formulas containing references to a specific field. Which method can you use?
A.Browse Field
B.Repository Explorer
C.Formula Field Search
D.Global Formula Search
Answer:D

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NO.2 Which formula uses the correct syntax to assign a variable a value in Crystal syntax?
A.Numbervar x; x = 5;
B.Dim x as Number x = 5
C.Dim x as Number x := 5
D.Numbervar x; x := 5;
Answer:D

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NO.3 You make changes to the record selection criteria in a Crystal report. In which two circumstances
should you choose the Refresh Data option rather than the Use Saved Data option? (Choose two.)
A.When up-to-the-minute, current information must be displayed on the report.
B.When adding one or more selection criteria.
C.When it is important to avoid time delays caused by network traffic during database server connects.
D.When removing one or more existing selection criteria.
Answer:A D

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NO.4 You create a new Crystal report and want to add a Top N sort, but the Group Sort Expert is inactive.
How can you activate the Group Sort Expert?
A.Insert a group name field.
B.Insert a summary field.
C.Insert a running total field.
D.Insert a formula field.
Answer:B

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NO.5 You are designing a Crystal report that summarizes customer orders by country, then by state, then by
city and by customer ID. You want the report to print each country on a new page. The first page should
display a bar chart showing Total Sales by Country group in the Report Header and as much of the first
country as can be displayed. The last page should show the summary for the last country and the grand
total for the entire report. Which step can you perform in the Section Expert to achieve the design goal?
A.Set New Page After on for Group Footer #1
B.Conditionally format the New Page After property for Group Footer #1 using the formula "not
onlastrecord"
C.Format the New Page After property for Group Header #1 using the formula "not onlastrecord"
D.Set New Page After on for the Report Header section
Answer:B

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NO.6 What is the reason you cannot insert a Group layout chart in the Page Header section?
A.You do not have access to the database.
B.The Page Header section is suppressed.
C.A Group layout chart cannot be placed in the Page Header section.
D.You have not saved the report with data.
Answer:C

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NO.7 Which two reasons explain why the Group Sort Expert is disabled when you attempt to create a Top N
report? (Choose two.)
A.You are in Design view.
B.The data was not refreshed.
C.You are in a Drill Down view.
D.The report is missing a summary value.
Answer:C D

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NO.8 Which two formulas can you use to determine whether the content of a string is a number? (Choose
two.)
A.IsNumber({Orders.Customer ID})
B.NumberText({Orders.Customer ID})
C.IsNumeric({Orders.Customer ID})
D.NumericText({Orders.Customer ID})
Answer:C D

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NO.9 Which two methods can you use to change the appearance of an object that you add to a Crystal report?
(Choose two.)
A.Hold down CTRL + Spacebar and click on the object.
B.Right-click the object and use the Format Editor.
C.Select the object and use the Formatting toolbar.
D.Drag-and-drop the object to the Formatting toolbar.
Answer:B C

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NO.10 Which three If-Then-Else control structure formulas in Crystal syntax will generate an error? (Choose
three.)
A.If {Orders.Order Amount} < 100 Then "Under $100" Else Is {Orders.Order Amount} in 100 to 200 Then
"Between $100 and $200"
B.If {Orders.order Amount} < 1000 Then "Low" Else "High"
C.If {Orders.Order Amount} < 100 Then formula = "Under $100" ElseIf {Orders.Order Amount} in 100 to
200 Then formula = "Between $100 and $200" EndIf
D.If {Orders.Order Amount} < 200 Then Under $200 Else If {Orders.Order Amount} in 200 to 300 Then
Between $200 and $300
Answer:A C D

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NO.11 In Crystal Reports you select multiple report objects at the same time. Which two menu options become
available when you right-click one of the selected objects? (Choose two.)
A.Move
B.Insert
C.Delete
D.Copy
E.Cut
Answer:D E

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NO.12 You are creating a Crystal report to show just the Top N countries in an international sales report based
on total sales for the previous quarter. The value of N is dynamic. Which method must you use to achieve
the required result?
A.Using the Group Select Expert, create a parameter to set the value of N. Add a conditional formula to
view just the Top N countries.
B.After creating a parameter to set the value of N, reference that parameter within the Group Sort Expert.
Refresh the report setting the value of N in the parameter to show just the Top N countries.
C.Using the Group Sort Expert, create a parameter to set the value of N. Refresh the report setting the
value of N in the parameter to show just the Top N countries.
D.After creating a parameter to set the value of N, refresh the report to view just those countries with a
grand total that is greater than N.
Answer:B

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NO.13 What are three Crystal Reports 2008 viewer features? (Choose three.)
A.Docked/Stationary Toolbar
B.Export to Microsoft PowerPoint
C.Java DHTML Viewer Exporting
D.Independent Group Tree Scrolling
Answer:A C D

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NO.14 What two configuration options are valid for long Lists of Values (LOV) in Crystal Reports 2008?
(Choose two.)
A.UI Batch Size
B.Database Timeout
C.Maximum LOV Size
D.Maximum Rowset Records
Answer:A C

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NO.15 You design a Crystal summary report that is grouped by Region then by Customer Name. The Details
section is hidden. The report includes a bar chart that displays total orders by Customer Name for each
Region group. Which procedure will display the chart beside the sections that show Customer Name and
Total Sales?
A.Place the chart in the Group Header #1 section and format the section to Underlay Following Sections.
B.Place the chart in the Details section and format the section to suppress if duplicated.
C.Place the chart in the Group Footer #2 section and format the section to Underlay Following Sections.
D.Place the chart in the Group Footer #2 section and format the section to suppress if duplicated.
Answer:A

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NO.16 Which three lines of code will generate an error? (Choose three.)
A.Local Number x := 1;
B.Local NumberVal x := 1;
C.Local NumberVar x := 1;
D.Local NumberValue x := 1;
Answer:A B D

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NO.17 You want to use the Workbench feature to manage multiple reports and publish them to
BusinessObjects Enterprise as object packages. Your manager is concerned that any Crystal user could
access and make changes to the reports located on the Workbench. How can you address your
manager's concerns?
A.Encrypt object packages.
B.Password protect object packages.
C.Assign appropriate permissions to object packages that are published to BusinessObjects Enterprise.
D.Track changes on object packages using the Dependency Checker.
Answer:C

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NO.18 When should you use parameters?
A.When creating conditional Top N reports.
B.When identifying the data source location.
C.When identifying trends in data.
D.When creating dynamic groups.
Answer:D

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NO.19 Which two statements describe how optional prompts behave in Crystal Reports 2008? (Choose two.)
A.If no value is entered in the prompt, all values are returned.
B.If no value is entered in the prompt, no values are returned.
C.If the parent prompt is optional, the child prompt must be optional.
D.If the child prompt is optional, the parent prompt must be optional.
Answer:A C

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NO.20 You copy a report from BusinessObjects Enterprise and modify the report. Which two methods can you
use to save changes back to BusinessObjects Enterprise? (Choose two.)
A.Save the report using the Report Explorer.
B.From the Main menu, select Save and choose Enterprise.
C.From the Main menu, select Save and choose Web Folders.
D.Save the report using the Repository Explorer.
Answer:B D

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NO.21 Which two methods can you use to insert field objects into a Crystal report? (Choose two.)
A.Right-click the area where you want the field object to appear, then select Insert Field Object from the
Context menu.
B.Click the field name, drag it to the desired position and release the mouse button to insert.
C.Open the Section Expert and click the Insert button.
D.Click the field name and click the Insert to Report icon at the top of the Field Explorer. Drag the field to
the desired position and left-click to insert.
Answer:B D

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NO.22 You have created a report with a parameter but the parameter value is not always required. Which
method should you use?
A.Set Editable to True
B.Set Null Values to True
C.Set Custom Values to True
D.Set Optional Prompt to True
Answer:D

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NO.23 You must create a static array in a Crystal report to be used for numeric calculations in other formulas.
How can you do this?
A.Global NumberVar Array newArray := Array (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
B.Global NumberVar Array newArray := MakeArray (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
C.Global NumberVar Array newArray := CreateArray (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
D.Global NumberVar Array newArray := DefineArray (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
Answer:B

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NO.24 Which three options are provided for web pagination? (Choose three.)
A.Navigation controls
B.Page breaking controls
C.Conditional Page Margin controls
D.Portrait versus Landscape controls
Answer:B C D

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NO.25 You need a report that shows all customers and allows the report reader to view either a report listing all
days in the month to date or to view only the customers with daily sales greater than $5000. You decide to
use report alerts to accomplish this. Which formula properly sets the alert condition?
A.Sum ({Orders.Order Amount}, {Orders.Order Date}, "daily") > 5000
B.Sum ({Orders.Order Date}, {Orders.Order Amount}, "daily") > 5000}
C.IF Sum ({Orders.Order Amount}, {Orders.Order Date}, "daily") > 5000 THEN crCondition = "Enabled"
D.IF Sum ({Orders.Order Amount}, {Orders.Order Date}, "daily") > 5000 THEN AlertMessage = "Enabled"
Answer:A

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NO.26 Which special field can you use to display the date a report was last changed?
A.Modification Date
B.Modification LastDate
C.Modification LastUpdate
D.Modification Time
Answer:A

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NO.27 How must you register multiple XML export formats in Crystal Reports 2008?
A.Configure XML export formats using the Define XML dialog.
B.Configure XML export formats using the Manage XML dialog.
C.Add XML export formats using the Manage XML Exporting Formats dialog.
D.Add XML export formats using the Define XML Exporting Formats dialog.
Answer:C

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NO.28 Which method can you use to insert field objects into a Crystal report?
A.Select the Field option from the Insert menu.
B.Right-click the area where you want the field object to appear, then select Insert Field Object from the
Context menu.
C.Click the field name, drag it to the desired position and release the mouse button to insert.
D.Click the Field button on the Formatting toolbar.
Answer:C

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NO.29 You want to create a formula using the Formula Workshop. You begin by right-clicking Formula Fields
in the Field Explorer and then click the New button. What happens after you click the New button?
A.You must select the type of formula and click OK.
B.The Formula Workshop opens with the Formula Editor inactive.
C.You must enter a formula name and click OK.
D.The Formula Workshop opens with the Formula Editor active.
Answer:C

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NO.30 After you select a BusinessObjects Universe to use as the data source for a Crystal report, you create
a query using the BusinessObjects Query Panel. What must you do to access the underlying data source?
A.Create a local cache of the data source.
B.Create a connection to the data source.
C.Create a local ODBC resource for the data source.
D.Log in to BusinessObjects Enterprise.
Answer:D

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시험 번호/코드: SABE501V3.0
시험 이름: Business-Objects (Business Objects Certified Professional - Business Objects Enterprise XI 3.0 - Update.)
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NO.1 What is the difference between one-way replication and two-way replication?
A.In one-way replication, content only travels from Origin site to Destination site. In two-way replication,
content only travels from Destination site to Origin site.
B.In one-way replication, content only travels from Destination site to Origin site. In two-way replication,
content can travel from Origin site to Destination site, or from Destination site to Origin site.
C.In one-way replication, content only travels from Origin site to Destination site. In two-way replication,
content also travels only from Origin site to Destination site but this operation can happen more than once.
D.In one-way replication, content only travels from Origin site to Destination site. In two-way replication,
content also travels from Origin site to Destination site but this operation can happen more than once.
Answer:D

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NO.2 How do you set-up a configuration template for a Web Intelligence Processing Server?
A.Go to the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), then go to the Server Template area and click on Add
New Template.
B.Go to the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), then go to properties of the specific server and click
on Add New Template.
C.Go to the Central Management Console (CMC), then go to the Server Template area and click on Set
Configuration Template.
D.Go to the Central Management Console (CMC), then go to properties of the specific server and click on
Set Configuration Template.
Answer:D

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NO.3 Which three application servers can you deploy Web Archive (WAR) files to using wdeploy? (Choose
three.)
A.Oracle Containers for J2EE
B.SAP Netweaver
C.JRun
D.Sun Java Application Server
Answer:A B D

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NO.4 Which type of file does the replication process use to transfer content?
A.BIAR
B.REP
C.Binary
D.BOMain
Answer:A

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NO.5 A user belongs to both Group 1 and Group 2 and you want that user to see a specific folder. What
folder security settings would you use to enable the user to view the folder?
A.Set the view right to granted for Group 1 and not specified for Group 2 and also not specified for the
Everyone group
B.Set the view right to denied for Group 1 and granted for Group 2
C.Set the view right to not specified for Group 1 and not specified for Group 2
D.Set the view right to granted for Group 1 and denied for Group 2
E.Create a custom access level and grant for Group 1 and deny for Group 2
Answer:A

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NO.6 What do you see when you view a Crystal Report instance that has both saved data and two
successful instances?
A.The latest data from the database
B.The oldest data from the database
C.The oldest successful instance
D.The newest successful instance
Answer:D

Business-Objects   SABE501V3.0최신덤프   SABE501V3.0인증   SABE501V3.0

NO.7 Which statement is true of a single Replication Job?
A.Has two or more origin sites and no destination sites
B.Has only one origin site and only one destination site
C.Has one or more origin sites and only one destination site
D.Has one or more origin sites and possibly many destination sites
Answer:B

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NO.8 In which two locations could you configure the port numbers for the local Central Management Server
(CMS)? (Choose two.)
A.In the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), under the Startup tab for the Server Intelligence Agent
(SIA)
B.In the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), under the Configuration tab for the CMS
C.In the Central Management Console (CMC), under the Server settings for the CMS
D.In the Central Management Console (CMC), under Server Intelligence Agent (SIA) settings
Answer:A C

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NO.9 What action would the Deployment Diagnostic Tool take when an InfoObject exists in the Central
Management Server (CMS) system database, but the corresponding file cannot be found in the File
Repository Server (FRS)?
A.Remove the InfoObject from the Central Management Server (CMS) system database, unless
otherwise specified.
B.Create a blank report as a placeholder.
C.Notify the user to republish the object.
D.Reassign the InfoObject to a new file.
Answer:A

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NO.10 Which servers should you examine if you are unable to schedule a Web Intelligence document?
(Choose three.)
A.Web Intelligence Processing Server
B.Connection Server
C.Adaptive Job Server
D.Output File Repository Server (FRS)
Answer:A C D

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NO.11 Which web language was used to develop InfoView?
A.Perl
B.Java
C.PHP
D.C++
Answer:B

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NO.12 Where are the properties for the Event Server stored?
A.In the boot.ini file on the machine where the Event Server is running
B.In the Central Management Server (CMS) system database
C.In the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA) bootstrap file
D.In the Event Server service properties
Answer:B

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NO.13 Which three parameters can you specify in the command line for wdeploy? (Choose three.)
A.Web Server Type
B.CMS Administrator Username
C.Deployment Parameters
D.Deployment Actions
Answer:A C D

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NO.14 Where do you configure the Login action for Desktop Intelligence users in a 3-tier mode?
A.Under Settings in the Desktop Intelligence client
B.In the Central Management Console (CMC), under the Audit Events of the Desktop Intelligence Cache
Server
C.In the Central Management Console (CMC), under the Audit Events of the Central Management Server
(CMS)
D.In the Central Management Console (CMC), under the Audit Events of the Desktop Intelligence
application
Answer:C

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NO.15 Four users in the Human Resources department and six users in the Finance department need to edit
existing Web Intelligence documents. How would you set-up a secure folder structure for the different
departments so that each group of users can edit existing Web Intelligence documents?
A.Modify advanced rights on all groups.
B.Apply a predefined access level to all folders.
C.Create a custom access level and apply it to all folders.
D.Modify advanced rights on a top level folder.
Answer:C

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NO.16 Which replication object would you schedule?
A.Replication Job
B.Replication List
C.Replication Connection
D.Replication Package
Answer:A

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NO.17 You are migrating content into a new system. Which task must you perform to maintain the system
integrity (CUID)?
A.Define the LDAP configuration
B.List the groups to be migrated
C.Define custom security settings
D.List the active content folders
Answer:A

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NO.18 How do you change the system database properties for the Central Management Server (CMS)?
A.Select the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA) in the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), which is
pointing to the remote CMS, stop the SIA and go to the Configuration tab.
B.Select the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA) in the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), which is
pointing to the local CMS, stop the SIA and go to the Startup tab.
C.Select the CMS in the Central Management Console (CMC), stop the service and go to the
Configuration tab.
D.Select the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA), which is pointing to the local CMS, stop the service and go
to the Configuration tab.
Answer:D

Business-Objects기출문제   SABE501V3.0   SABE501V3.0자료   SABE501V3.0

NO.19 Which three are benefits to the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA)? (Choose three.)
A.Security
B.Administrative accessibility
C.Email notification
D.Reliability
Answer:A B D

Business-Objects   SABE501V3.0   SABE501V3.0

NO.20 Which directory is the bootstrap file saved in by default on the Windows platform?
A.Web Services
B.Logging
C.FileStore
D.Win32_x86
Answer:D

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시험 번호/코드: SABE501V
시험 이름: Business-Objects (Business Objects Certified Professional - Business Objects Enterprise XI 3.0 – Update)
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Q&A: 71 문항
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NO.1 Which web language was used to develop InfoView?
A. Perl
B. Java
C. PHP
D. C++
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which three are benefits to the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA).? (Choose three.)
A. Security
B. Administrative accessibility
C. Email notification
D. Reliability
Answer: A,B,D

Business-Objects최신덤프   SABE501V최신덤프   SABE501V dumps

NO.3 Where are the properties for the Event Server stored?
A. In the boot.ini file on the machine where the Event Server is running
B. In the Central Management Server (CMS) system database
C. In the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA) bootstrap file
D. In the Event Server service properties
Answer: B

Business-Objects기출문제   SABE501V자격증   SABE501V

NO.4 Which directory is the bootstrap file saved in by default on the Windows platform?
A. Web Services
B. Logging
C. FileStore
D. Win32_x86
Answer: D

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NO.5 Four users in the Human Resources department and six users in the Finance department need to edit
existing Web Intelligence documents. How would you set-up a secure folder structure for the different
departments so that each group of users can edit existing Web Intelligence documents?
A. Modify advanced rights on all groups.
B. Apply a predefined access level to all folders.
C. Create a custom access level and apply it to all folders.
D. Modify advanced rights on a top level folder.
Answer: C

Business-Objects   SABE501V자료   SABE501V   SABE501V dumps

NO.6 Which type of file does the replication process use to transfer content?
A. BIAR
B. REP
C. Binary
D. BOMain
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which replication object would you schedule?
A. Replication Job
B. Replication List
C. Replication Connection
D. Replication Package
Answer: A

Business-Objects기출문제   SABE501V   SABE501V   SABE501V

NO.8 How do you set-up a configuration template for a Web Intelligence Processing Server?
A. Go to the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), then go to the Server Template area and click on Add
New Template.
B. Go to the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), then go to properties of the specific server and click
on Add New Template.
C. Go to the Central Management Console (CMC), then go to the Server Template area and click on Set
Configuration Template.
D. Go to the Central Management Console (CMC), then go to properties of the specific server and click
on Set Configuration Template.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which three application servers can you deploy Web Archive (WAR) files to using wdeploy? (Choose
three.)
A. Oracle Containers for J2EE
B. SAPNetweaver
C. JRun
D. Sun Java Application Server
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.10 What do you see when you view a Crystal Report instance that has both saved data and two
successful instances?
A. The latest data from the database
B. The oldest data from the database
C. The oldest successful instance
D. The newest successful instance
Answer: D

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시험 번호/코드: QAWI201
시험 이름: Business-Objects (Business Objects Certified Professional Web Intelligence XI 3.0 (QAWI201))
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Q&A: 98 문항
업데이트: 2014-04-28

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NO.1 Which panel should you use to view a Document Summary of a BusinessObjects Web
Intelligence XI 3.0 document (WID)?
A. Advanced
B. Query
C. Active X
D. Interactive
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which two settings can you configure for the Sample option in the Properties tab of the Web
Intelligence Query panel? (Choose two.)
A. You can enable the "Fixed" option.
B. You can set the "Max retrieval time".
C. You can set the "Max rows retrieved".
D. You can specify a "Sample Result" set.
Answer: A,D

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NO.3 Which two methods can you use to apply report filters to a BusinessObjects Web Intelligence
XI 3.0 document (WID)? (Choose two.)
A. Block
B. Global
C. Custom
D. Dynamic
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 Which two Web Intelligence Rich Client authentication methods enable you to export Web
Intelligence documents (WID) to the Central Management Server (CMS)? (Choose two.)
A. LTM
B. LDAP
C. Offline
D. Enterprise
E. Standalone
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 Where are formulas stored when created in Web Intelligence?
A. In the universe
B. On the report page
C. In the Central Management Server (CMS) database
D. In the metadata of the Cube
Answer: B

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NO.6 Your document displays all data in black. Which dialog box should you use to configure the
colors of your document data?
A. Document Palette
B. Document Formats
C. Display Preferences
D. Data Tracking Options
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which tab should you use to change the page orientation of a report?
A. Click File > Page Setup and select "Page Orientation"
B. In InfoView Preferences, change the default page orientation
C. Select the report tab; in Report Manager, select the "Properties" tab and select the "Page
Orientation"
D. Select the report page; in Report Manager, select the "Properties" tab and select the "Page
Orientation"
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which three rules apply when you manually synchronize queries? (Choose three.)
A. Dimension value formats must be the same.
B. Dimensions with different names can be merged.
C. Dimensions with different data types can be merged.
D. Dimensions from multiple data sources can be merged.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.9 You have created a BusinessObjects Web Intelligence XI 3.0 document (WID) within InfoView
that has a single table block on a single report page. Where will a new object be displayed when you
add it to the query?
A. In a block
B. In a new report
C. In Query Panel
D. In Report Manager
E. In a new report page
Answer: D

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NO.10 How many blocks can you create in a Web Intelligence document (WID)?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
E. Unlimited
Answer: E

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시험 번호/코드: 060-DSFA680
시험 이름: Altiris (Altiris Deployment Solution Foundation 6.8)
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Q&A: 100 문항
업데이트: 2014-04-28

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NO.1 You are using the Deployment Console's New Job Wizard to migrate a computer's personality from
one computer to different computer.
What happens to the names of these two computers during this process?
A. The destination computer is automatically given a new unique name.
B. The source computer is automatically renamed and the destination computer gets the original name of
the source computer.
C. The two computers will end up with identical names, therefore you must rename one of the computers
manually.
Answer: B

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NO.2 While imaging computers, Deployment Solution supports the use of UNDI drivers.
Which UNDI driver statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. UNDI drivers are written specifically to work with the Altiris automation process.
B. UNDI drivers must be downloaded and installed from Intel's Web site before they can be used.
C. UNDI drivers let you image computers without obtaining a specific manufacturer's network driver for
each network card.
D. UNDI drivers do not support multicasting of hard disk images across the entire network.
E. UNDI drivers support multicasting of hard disk images across the entire network.
Answer: CD

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NO.3 Which statement about deploying computer image files is true?
A. The RDeploy switch used to preserve existing partitions is enabled by default.
B. Aborting the deployment process (after imaging as started) corrupts the destination computer's hard
drive.
C. The maximum space required on the destination hard drive is equal to the size of the image file.
D. The imaging process is non-destructive, and adds data to what is already stored on an existing hard
drive partition.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which utility removes the security ID (SID) before making an image of a computer?
A. SIDgenerator
B. SetupCapture
C. Sysprep
D. ImageExplorer
E. SIDconfig
Answer: C

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NO.5 Deployment Agents (such as AClient) can be installed on remote computers using the Remote Agent
Installer, but only when the remote computers are running which four operating systems? (Choose four.)
A. Windows 2000
B. Windows 95
C. Windows NT
D. Windows XP
E. Windows 2003
F. Linux
G. Windows 98
Answer: ACDE

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NO.6 Which Altiris utility creates the necessary media to run the Initial Deployment job from a CD?
A. ImageExplorer
B. RapiDeploy
C. PXE Configuration Utility
D. Initial Deployment Configuration Utility
E. Boot Disk Creator
Answer: E

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NO.7 AClient (on a managed computer) has been configured to use a multicast packet to locate the
Deployment Server.
Which statement is now true?
A. moving this computer to a different Deployment System requires the AClient agent be reconfigured
B. images can be sent using unicast packets or multicast packets
C. this setting configures images to be sent to the computer using multicasting technology
D. the Deployment Server must be configured to obtain its IP address from a DHCP server
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which Deployment Console method lets you work with software virtualization layers?
A. using a Deployment job
B. selecting Tools > Software Virtualization
C. right-clicking on a computer and selecting Software Virtualization > Manage Layers
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which program lets you edit image files after they have been created?
A. ImgViewer
B. ImageExplorer
C. ImageEditor
D. ImageManager
E. ImgManager
Answer: B

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NO.10 AClient has not been password protected.
Which three tasks can be performed after right-clicking on the AClient icon from a managed computer?
(Choose three.)
A. initiate Microsoft's Sysprep Utility in preparation for imaging
B. view the AClient log file when log files have been enabled
C. change the name of the managed computer as it appears in the Deployment Console
D. change the NetBIOS name of the managed computer
E. monitor AClient's communication with the Deployment Server
F. reinstall AClient
G. edit the AClient template file
Answer: BCE

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NO.11 How does a Deployment Solution job let you work with software virtualization layers? (Choose two.)
A. layers can be imported to a managed computer
B. layers can be created
C. the state of a layer can be managed (activated, deactivated, and so forth)
D. the content of a layer can be modified
Answer: AC

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NO.12 When using the DOS operating system, image files with an .EXE file extension _____?
A. cannot be deployed using a Deployment job
B. must be converted to .IMG before they can be deployed with a Deployment job
C. cannot be converted to .IMG files
D. can be deployed without using additional Altiris imaging software
Answer: D

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NO.13 AClient has been installed on your Windows XP managed computers.
Which three methods can be used to change the settings AClient is currently using? (Choose three.)
A. from the Deployment Console, right-click on the computer and select Change Agent Settings
B. from the Deployment Console, select Tools > AClient > Configurations
C. from the managed computer, select Start > All Programs > Altiris > AClient > Configuration
D. from the managed computer, double-click the AClient icon located in the system tray and select
Properties
E. from the Deployment Console, double-click on a computer and edit the client properties
F. use the Deployment Console to reinstall AClient with the desired settings
Answer: ADF

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NO.14 When capturing a computer's personality, the application settings used for this process are located in
which file type?
A. .INI
B. .A2I
C. .ASI
D. .PBT
Answer: B

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NO.15 Deployment Solution's Simple Install Helper will check for and install which required third-party
software? (Choose two.)
A. Java
B. DirectX
C. ActiveX
D. .NET framework
E. Pre-boot automation operating systems
F. SQL
Answer: DF

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NO.16 When using Altiris PXE servers in a Deployment System, which PXE statement is true?
A. Multiple PXE servers can only be installed if a router separates them.
B. If a PXE server is configured to delay its response, it will respond only if no other PXE server responds
immediately.
C. A managed computer only uses the first PXE server it hears from.
D. Configuring multiple PXE servers to respond immediately causes errors on the managed computers.
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which required symbol identifies the opening and closing of a Deployment token?
A. %
B. #
C. $
D. *
Answer: A

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NO.18 You can use _____ to ensure that your PXE servers are servicing the correct managed computers.
A. IP blocking
B. Conditions
C. MAC filtering
D. NetBIOS name recognition
Answer: C

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NO.19 You have deployed a hardware independent image to an ACPI Uniprocessor computer and now the
computer will not start.
What is the probable cause?
A. the wrong hardware abstraction layer (HAL) was deployed
B. Sysprep was not run on the source computer
C. the ACPI Uniprocessor computer does not support hardware independent images
D. a clean Windows installation was not performed on the source computer before creating the hardware
independent image.
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which Deployment Solution component stores the main Deployment System program files?
A. Deployment Server
B. Deployment Database
C. Deployment Share
D. Microsoft DHCP Server
E. Deployment PXE Server
F. Deployment Console
Answer: C

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