2013년 10월 31일 목요일

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시험 번호/코드: 6104
시험 이름: Avaya (Avaya Wireless LAN Implementation Exam)
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업데이트: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 A customer has deployed an Avaya WLAN 8l00 system with minimal coverage and has placed
all of the Access Points (APs) in operational mode.
Assuming that the customer has deployed no other wireless security measures, which behavior
should
their technicians expect when they enable rogue AP threat mitigation?
A. The APs will send de authentication messages to all rogue APs and their associated clients with
Basic
Service Set Identifications (BSSIDs) different from their own.
B. The APs will scan the legal channels, build a rogue mitigation list, and send de-authentication
messages to the rogue APs.
C. The APs will send de authentication messages to the clients associated to rogue APs operating on
the
same channel as the managed AP.
D. The APs will scan all channels, build a rogue mitigation list, and send de-authentication messages
to
all rogue APs and their associated clients.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which statement describes the WLAN 8180 controller AC/DC power specification?
A. It operates only on AC power: 110 - 120 VAC / 60 Hz.
B. The maximum power consumption is 190 Watts.
C. Power over Ethernet (Pot) is supported on the ports in front panel.
D. Wireless Controller (WC) 8180 does not support dual power supply.
Answer: B

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NO.3 A client calls and says that an employee disconnected his laptop docking station and
connected a
wireless router to the LAN using the station's Ethernet cable, and the 8100 system did not detect
the
presence of this unmanaged Access Point (AP). The client has globally enabled RF scanning.
Which two statements describe why the fit no system is behaving in this manner? (Choose two.)
A. The AP deployment is too sparse to allow successful triangulation on the router.
B. The outer is successfully mimicking a known managed AP.
C. The APs are operating at maximum load.
D. The deployment does not include WIDS/WIPS APs.
E. The APs are not configured to scan all channels.
Answer: B,D

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NO.4 Which two DHCP options are required for a Wireless LAN client? (Choose two)
A. DHCP option 3 - Router (Default Gateway)
B. DHCP option 6 - DNS Server D C) DHCP option 12 - Host Name
C. DHCP option 15 - DNS name
D. DHCP option 43 - Vendor specified option for switch discovery
Answer: A,D

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NO.5 With WLAN management System (WMS) user role as ROLE_ADMIN , which actions can be
performed?
A. Create new users, create configuration, monitor
B. Create new users, monitor
C. Create configuration, monitor
D. Create new users, create configuration
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which two DHCP configuration stops must be accomplished for an Access Point (AP) to
identify a
Wireless Controller (WC) to manage it? (Choose two.)
A. The sub-option 08 with value "AVAYA AP" must he Included before other sub options.
B. The prefix "AVAYA-AP" must be included before the list of IP addresses.
C. The IP address of the Active Mobility Domain Controller (AMDC) and Backup Mobility Domain
Controllers (BMDC) must be provided in the 43 field. The AMDC will ensure the AP gets assigned to
the
correct WC.
D. The IP address of any WC in the domain may be provided in the option 43 field. APs will get
assigned
to the correct WC even if it isn t the same IP address as listed in the option 43 field.
E. If the AP needs to be managed by a particular WC, the IP address of that specific controller in the
option 43 field must be specified.
Answer: A,E

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NO.7 Which statement describes the relationships between AP profile, radio profiles, and network
profiles?
A. Radio profiles refer to AP profile, which in turn refer to network profiles.
B. The AP profile refer to AP profiles for radio specific settings and network profiles for SSID specific
settings.
C. Network profiles refer to AP profiles for mapping SSIDs to APs, and AP profiles refer to radio
profiles
for radio specific settings.
D. The three are linked together in the configuration by mobility profiles which logically map them
to each
other.
Answer: B

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NO.8 A technician is replacing a failed WLAN Management System (WMS) server and wants to
import a
saved configuration onto the new server. The new Access Point (AP) license has already been
installed
on the new WMS and everything is working.
What is the best way to import a previously saved configuration?
A. Put the backup configuration files in C:\Program Files\Avaya\WMS\conf and restart WMS.
B. Manually add all WC(s) in the domain, and then sync the policies from the Active Mobility
Domain
Controller (AMDC).
C. Put the backup configuration files in C:\Program Files\Avaya\WMS\backup and then in WMS go
to
configuration to Database Backup and choose the file to be imported.
D. Load the backup configuration directly into MySQL.
Answer: B

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NO.9 A technician working for a multinational company is using the Captive Portal (CP) features to
localize the welcome screen that company guests see at each location.
What must be done to ensure the correct welcome screen appears at a given site?
A. Copy the correct image to the central http/https server for the Mobility Domain.
B. Customize welcome screen of CP on each Wireless Controller.
C. Set the Remote Authentication Dial in User Service (RADIUS) session-display attribute in the
Guest
group profile to return the configured value of the image file.
D. Set the local database on the wireless Controller to present the image to all unauthenticated
users.
Answer: A

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NO.10 A technician is performing an initial configuration on a Wireless Controller (WC).
Which command will accurately set the IP address to 10.127.4S.20 with a 24 bit network mask on a
network with no default gateway.?
A. ip address 10.127.45.20/24 default-gateway none
B. ip address 10.127.45.20.255.255.0 0.0.0.0
C. ip address 10.127.45.20 255.255.255.0 default-gateway 0.0.0.0
D. ip address 10.127.45.20/24 default-gateway 0.0.0.0
Answer: C

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시험 번호/코드: 7303
시험 이름: Avaya (Avaya CallPilot Implementation Exam)
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Q&A: 68 문항
업데이트: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 A technician is installing a 600r, and notices that the server boots to the Windows screen then
starts
booting again. It is stuck in a boot.
What is the first step that should be taken?
A. Re-image the server.
B. Openacase requesting a replacement server.
C. Replace the hard drive.
D. Verify theSCSIterminator or tape drive is properly connected to the server.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which two additional software packages are installed during the Avaya CallPilot Reporter
installation?
A. Adobo Acrobat
B. Crystal Repots
C. Application Builder
D. a Sybase database
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 A technician is installing an Avaya CallPilot system on a customer site. After running the Setup
Wizard and the Configuration Wizard 'he technician has verified the server operating system
settings are correct for the site and has rebooted the server to place the system into operation.
After the reboot is complete and the technician has logged hack on to the server, which process
verifies
that the Avaya CallPilot server is able to receive incoming calls?
A. Print the ControlDNs.
B. Print the Virtual Agents.
C. Ping theELAN connection.
D. Dial the VoiceMessagingDNasdefined in the Configuration Wizard.
Answer: D

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NO.4 A technician has completed the configuration and programming for an implementation of a
new Avaya CallPilot system.
When the Avaya CallPilot is rebooted, over which local Area Network (LAN) connection does the
Communication Server 1000 communicate with the Avaya CallPilot voicemail system.?
A. DSO
B. CLAN
C. ELAN
D. SLAN
E. TLAN
Answer: C

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NO.5 Working as a team, the Project Manager has just finished programming the agents in the PBX,
while technician configured them in Avaya CallPilot. When Avaya CallPilot hoots into service, all
channels come up except for one. Prior to the replacement of hardware, it is decided to look into
the Event log.
Which event below gives a possible clue us to what the problem is?
A. DialogicEventManagement system initialization failed.
B. IMAreceived a disk full event.
C. Event from Blue Call Router: All Port Busy Indication.
D. TN/DN mismatch.
Answer: D

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NO.6 When installing Avaya CallPilot Reporter, what is a valid installation option?
A. Client PC
B. Avaya CallPilot server
C. Administrator PC
D. Customer provided Web server
Answer: D

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NO.7 The Avaya CallPilot 600r server has one MPM96 card. The PBX it is connecting to will require
MGate cards.
How many MGate cards are needed to support 80 voice channels?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: C

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NO.8 A company is planning to install a new Avaya CallPilot RIs. 5.0 system. They need a high
availability
system that will allow a standby server to lake over in case the primary server fails.
Which hardware platform should be delivered on-site?
A. 703t
B. 600r
C. 1006r
D. 1002rp
E. 2250
Answer: C

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NO.9 A technician is preparing for an Avaya CallPilot installation and is reviewing site survey
information.
The customer wants to implement the desktop messaging feature, but on the survey there is no
mention
of desktop messaging seats.
Where is it confirmed that desktop messaging seats were ordered?
A. on the shipped packing list
B. on the keycodecertificate
C. in the AvayaCallPilotsystem afterimplementation
D. in theconfigurationwizardduring implementation
Answer: B

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NO.10 A technician is installing an Avaya CallPilot with the NTRH40CA MBP96 CAT5 board and two
NTRB18DA Mgate cards.
When cabling the NTRB18DA Mgate cards in a Communication Server 1000S Media Gateway, which
statement describes the cabling configuration that is the most valid?
A. Attach the customersupplied RJ-45cables to thefaceof the Mgate cards and then to the MBP96
card.
B. Attach the customer supplied RJ-45 cables to the backplane of the Media Gateway or
MediaGateway
expansion cabinet and then to the MBP96 card.
C. AttachNTDU0609 cables to the face of the Mgate cards and route them outside the Media
Gateway.
Then couple the customer supplied RJ-45 cables from the NTDU0609 to the MPB96 cards.
D. Attach the NTDU0609 cables to the face of the Mgate cards and take them outside the Media ay
lo a
customer supplied Ethernet hub. Attach RJ-45 cable from the hub to the MPB96cards.
Answer: C

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시험 번호/코드: 3202
시험 이름: Avaya (Avaya Aura Conferencing (R7.x) Implementation and Maintenance Exam)
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NO.1 On the Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 system, which two actions are involved in configuring the
Media Server and Media Server cluster? (Choose two)
A. Log onto Provisioning Manager and configure it under “Conference of Service”.
B. Log onto the EM console, and configure it in the sub menu “Media Server Resource” under the
Feature Server Elements.
C. Log on to Provisioning Manager and configure “Media Server Resource” under System
Management Tab.
D. Log onto WCS server and configure the Media Resource in the Collaboration Agent window.
Answer: B

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NO.2 An administrator has a new license file for Avaya Aura® conferencing 7.
Which step should the administrator take to install the new license file?
A. Log onto the Communications Manager CDOM, then go to license and copy and paste the new
license file.
B. Log onto the Conferencing 7, then go to Element Manager and upload the new license file.
C. Log onto System Manager, then go to License and upload the new license file.
D. Log onto the System Manager CDOM, then go to Security and copy and paste the new license
file.
Answer: B

Avaya   3202시험문제   3202
6. The Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 system has 10 components.
Which two components are parts of the Web Server Group? (Choose two.)
A. Web Collaboration Management Server (WCMS)
B. Avaya Media Server (AMS)
C. Document Conversion Server (DCS)
D. Application Server (AS)
Answer: A,B

Avaya시험문제   3202   3202인증
7. During installation of the Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 software, which prompt will the installer
receive?
A. The staging username
B. The deployment type or staging file to be used
C. The operations file be used
D. The operations file or deployment name to be used
Answer: B

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8. The conferencing moderator dialed into the conference room successfully using moderator
code,
and was also able to successfully launch Collaboration Agent. However, the web conference could
not be launched from the Collaboration Agent.
What is causing this problem?
A. During the conference user provisioning, the conference administrator did not enable the Web
Conferencing Server feature specific to this user.
B. The web conferencing URL was not added to the hosts file on the Media Server.
C. The Web Conference Server Was not added or configured in Provisioning manager.
D. The Document Conversation Server was not configured.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which SIP Monitoring field must be selected to allow the System Manager to manage
bandwidth
on the Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 SIP Entity?
A. SIP Link Monitoring
B. Supports Call Admission Control
C. Primary Session Manager Bandwidth Association
D. SIP Domain
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is the requirement for Avaya Media Servers to be grouped into an Avaya Media Server
Cluster?
A. They must share the system default setting.
B. They must share common power supply.
C. They must share the same physical location.
D. They must share the same server name.
Answer: A

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NO.5 When viewing alarms in the browser, what is the default order that alarms appear?
A. Warning, Minor, Major, Critical
B. Major, Critical, Minor, Warning
C. Minor, Warning, Critical, Major
D. Critical, Major, Minor, Warning
Answer: A

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시험 번호/코드: 132-S-900-7
시험 이름: Avaya (Avaya IP Telephony Design Elective Exam)
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NO.1 A client is implementing an S87xx Media Server with several G650 Media Gateways. y are
concerned with overheating in the equipment room, especially in the equipment power units.
Which two conditions cause a G650 power supply to initiate an emergency shutdown? (Choose two.)
A. overvoltage
B. overheating
C. undervoltage
D. high humidity
Answer: A,B

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NO.2 A customer has two sites connected over a 512k serial WAN link. There are 40 employees at
the main site and 20 employees at the remote site. Since the server bank and all trunks terminate at
the main location, the customer has concerns about the bandwidth over the WAN link. They
request a network assessment.
Which two design considerations are pertinent to the bandwidth on the WAN link? (Choose two.)
A. VLAN capable Ethernet switch
B. telecommuters using IP Softphone to access network resources
C. number of voice calls going through the WAN link during peak time
D. graphic-based programs used on the network between the two sites
Answer: C,D

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NO.3 Which two recommendations of a network assessment allow Avaya IP phones to boot up
properly with dynamic addressing? (Choose two.)
A. DHCP Site Specific Option 167 being set up correctly
B. DHCP Site Specific Option 176 being set up correctly
C. using Fast Spanning Tree Protocol (FSTP) at the port level
D. turning off Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) at the switch level
Answer: B,C

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NO.4 The customer plans to add remote IP users when they implement VoIP on their network.
What information about the customer's data network do you need to know to verify that remote
users can be supported? (Choose three.)
A. codec administration
B. network region for each remote user
C. applications the remote user will be using
D. bandwidth the remote user will have access to
E. the average round trip between the VPN users and the voice network
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.5 An Avaya customer with a large contact center is IP enabling their S87xx and will allow 25
users to work from home via IP Agent in the Telecommuter mode.
What is the minimum hardware required in the S87xx to provide this application?
A. one CLAN board only
B. one Media Processor board only
C. one CLAN and one Media Processor board
D. no hardware is required, only software.
Answer: A

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NO.6 What needs to be considered at an Enterprise Survivability Server (ESS) location when
implementing an agent recording solution?
A. H.323 trunks
B. locally sourced announcements
C. Application Enablement Services (AES)
D. Separation of Bearer and Signaling (SBS)
Answer: C

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NO.7 Within an S8500 Server, 25 IP telephony endpoints are simultaneously connected to 10 digital
sets, 10 IP sets, and 5 CO trunks.
How many DSPs are in use if G.711 is incorporated?
A. 15
B. 25
C. 30
D. 50
Answer: A

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NO.8 Your client is planning to implement IP Telephony on their recently installed S8500. y will have
local IP sets and IP connected remote users (IP Softphone). In addition, they need connectivity to a
limited-bandwidth WAN between headquarters and their manufacturing plant. The client is
interested in setting up network regions.
What are three reasons to consider network regions in your overall design? (Choose three.)
A. to associate parameters such as codecs and locations to groups of IP endpoints
B. to provide IP endpoints certain mandatory use of resources that belong in the same region as the
endpoint
C. to provide IP endpoints certain preference to use resources that belong in the same region as the
endpoint
D. to associate IP endpoints with a type of signaling resource (CLANS) to load balance registration
among the CLANS in multiple regions
E. to associate IP endpoints with a type of signaling resource (CLANS) to load balance registration
among the CLANS in the same region
Answer: A,C,E

Avaya자료   132-S-900-7시험문제   132-S-900-7

NO.9 You are developing IP Telephony bandwidth requirements for WAN traffic between two S87xx
sites. The client estimates that simultaneous non-IP Telephony traffic will occupy 1.5 Mbps. In
addition, they estimate that using G.729, 55 simultaneous IP calls need to be provided access to the
WAN link.
What estimated bandwidth will the IP Telephony traffic add to the WAN traffic?
A. 1.5 Mbps
B. 275 Kbps
C. 1650 Kbps
D. 4675 Kbps
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of the following does a typical Cisco design include?
A. Right to Use for Call Manager
B. Right to Use for Growth
C. Right to Use for Phones
D. Right to Use for Redundancy
Answer: C

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시험 번호/코드: SABE501V3.0
시험 이름: Business-Objects (Business Objects Certified Professional - Business Objects Enterprise XI 3.0 - Update.)
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Q&A: 72 문항
업데이트: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 Which three are benefits to the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA)? (Choose three.)
A.Security
B.Administrative accessibility
C.Email notification
D.Reliability
Answer:A B D

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NO.2 Where are the properties for the Event Server stored?
A.In the boot.ini file on the machine where the Event Server is running
B.In the Central Management Server (CMS) system database
C.In the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA) bootstrap file
D.In the Event Server service properties
Answer:B

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NO.3 How do you change the system database properties for the Central Management Server (CMS)?
A.Select the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA) in the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), which is
pointing to the remote CMS, stop the SIA and go to the Configuration tab.
B.Select the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA) in the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), which is
pointing to the local CMS, stop the SIA and go to the Startup tab.
C.Select the CMS in the Central Management Console (CMC), stop the service and go to the
Configuration tab.
D.Select the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA), which is pointing to the local CMS, stop the service and go
to the Configuration tab.
Answer:D

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NO.4 Which web language was used to develop InfoView?
A.Perl
B.Java
C.PHP
D.C++
Answer:B

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NO.5 Which servers should you examine if you are unable to schedule a Web Intelligence document?
(Choose three.)
A.Web Intelligence Processing Server
B.Connection Server
C.Adaptive Job Server
D.Output File Repository Server (FRS)
Answer:A C D

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NO.6 Where do you configure the Login action for Desktop Intelligence users in a 3-tier mode?
A.Under Settings in the Desktop Intelligence client
B.In the Central Management Console (CMC), under the Audit Events of the Desktop Intelligence Cache
Server
C.In the Central Management Console (CMC), under the Audit Events of the Central Management Server
(CMS)
D.In the Central Management Console (CMC), under the Audit Events of the Desktop Intelligence
application
Answer:C

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NO.7 How do you set-up a configuration template for a Web Intelligence Processing Server?
A.Go to the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), then go to the Server Template area and click on Add
New Template.
B.Go to the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), then go to properties of the specific server and click
on Add New Template.
C.Go to the Central Management Console (CMC), then go to the Server Template area and click on Set
Configuration Template.
D.Go to the Central Management Console (CMC), then go to properties of the specific server and click on
Set Configuration Template.
Answer:D

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NO.8 What is the difference between one-way replication and two-way replication?
A.In one-way replication, content only travels from Origin site to Destination site. In two-way replication,
content only travels from Destination site to Origin site.
B.In one-way replication, content only travels from Destination site to Origin site. In two-way replication,
content can travel from Origin site to Destination site, or from Destination site to Origin site.
C.In one-way replication, content only travels from Origin site to Destination site. In two-way replication,
content also travels only from Origin site to Destination site but this operation can happen more than once.
D.In one-way replication, content only travels from Origin site to Destination site. In two-way replication,
content also travels from Origin site to Destination site but this operation can happen more than once.
Answer:D

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NO.9 You are migrating content into a new system. Which task must you perform to maintain the system
integrity (CUID)?
A.Define the LDAP configuration
B.List the groups to be migrated
C.Define custom security settings
D.List the active content folders
Answer:A

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NO.10 In which two locations could you configure the port numbers for the local Central Management Server
(CMS)? (Choose two.)
A.In the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), under the Startup tab for the Server Intelligence Agent
(SIA)
B.In the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), under the Configuration tab for the CMS
C.In the Central Management Console (CMC), under the Server settings for the CMS
D.In the Central Management Console (CMC), under Server Intelligence Agent (SIA) settings
Answer:A C

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NO.11 Which replication object would you schedule?
A.Replication Job
B.Replication List
C.Replication Connection
D.Replication Package
Answer:A

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NO.12 Which three application servers can you deploy Web Archive (WAR) files to using wdeploy? (Choose
three.)
A.Oracle Containers for J2EE
B.SAP Netweaver
C.JRun
D.Sun Java Application Server
Answer:A B D

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NO.13 Which three parameters can you specify in the command line for wdeploy? (Choose three.)
A.Web Server Type
B.CMS Administrator Username
C.Deployment Parameters
D.Deployment Actions
Answer:A C D

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NO.14 What action would the Deployment Diagnostic Tool take when an InfoObject exists in the Central
Management Server (CMS) system database, but the corresponding file cannot be found in the File
Repository Server (FRS)?
A.Remove the InfoObject from the Central Management Server (CMS) system database, unless
otherwise specified.
B.Create a blank report as a placeholder.
C.Notify the user to republish the object.
D.Reassign the InfoObject to a new file.
Answer:A

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NO.15 Four users in the Human Resources department and six users in the Finance department need to edit
existing Web Intelligence documents. How would you set-up a secure folder structure for the different
departments so that each group of users can edit existing Web Intelligence documents?
A.Modify advanced rights on all groups.
B.Apply a predefined access level to all folders.
C.Create a custom access level and apply it to all folders.
D.Modify advanced rights on a top level folder.
Answer:C

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NO.16 Which type of file does the replication process use to transfer content?
A.BIAR
B.REP
C.Binary
D.BOMain
Answer:A

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NO.17 A user belongs to both Group 1 and Group 2 and you want that user to see a specific folder. What
folder security settings would you use to enable the user to view the folder?
A.Set the view right to granted for Group 1 and not specified for Group 2 and also not specified for the
Everyone group
B.Set the view right to denied for Group 1 and granted for Group 2
C.Set the view right to not specified for Group 1 and not specified for Group 2
D.Set the view right to granted for Group 1 and denied for Group 2
E.Create a custom access level and grant for Group 1 and deny for Group 2
Answer:A

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NO.18 Which statement is true of a single Replication Job?
A.Has two or more origin sites and no destination sites
B.Has only one origin site and only one destination site
C.Has one or more origin sites and only one destination site
D.Has one or more origin sites and possibly many destination sites
Answer:B

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NO.19 What do you see when you view a Crystal Report instance that has both saved data and two
successful instances?
A.The latest data from the database
B.The oldest data from the database
C.The oldest successful instance
D.The newest successful instance
Answer:D

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NO.20 Which directory is the bootstrap file saved in by default on the Windows platform?
A.Web Services
B.Logging
C.FileStore
D.Win32_x86
Answer:D

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시험 번호/코드: QAWI201V3
시험 이름: Business-Objects (Business Objects Certified Professional Web Intelligence XI 3.0)
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NO.1 Which two Web Intelligence Rich Client authentication methods enable you to export Web
Intelligence documents (WID) to the Central Management Server (CMS)? (Choose two.)
A. LTM
B. LDAP
C. Offline
D. Enterprise
E. Standalone
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 Which three layout options can you use when creating sections in a report? (Choose three.)
A. Relative Position
B. Start on New Page
C. Keep Blocks Together
D. Avoid Page Break in Section
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.3 What is the maximum number of sub-alerts that an alerter can contain?
A. 1
B. 8
C. 16
D. 32
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which three can you use to start the Web Intelligence Rich Client from? (Choose three.)
A. InfoView
B. Command Line
C. Start > All Programs
D. Central Management Console
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.5 Which object types can you merge when using Multi Queries in a Web Intelligence
document(WID)?
A. Dimension - Detail
B. Measure - Measure
C. Dimension - Measure
D. Dimension - Dimension
Answer: D

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NO.6 What is the default behavior when creating a report from two queries from the same
universe?
A. Result produces two table blocks.
B. Dimension objects are automatically merged.
C. Results are shown on two different report tabs.
D. Dimension objects are not automatically merged.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which two are limitations of a detail object? (Choose two.)
A. It cannot be drilled on.
B. It cannot be used in the report filter.
C. It cannot be merged in a document.
D. It cannot be used in the WHERE statement of the query.
Answer: A,C

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NO.8 Your document displays all data in black. Which dialog box should you use to configure the
colors of your document data?
A. Document Palette
B. Document Formats
C. Display Preferences
D. Data Tracking Options
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which two statements are true about the AND operator? (Choose two.)
A. Used when any condition is met by two filters
B. Used when all conditions are met by two filters
C. Used when all conditions are met by more than two filters
D. Used when only one condition is met by any of the filters
Answer: B,C

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NO.10 Where should you configure the regional settings of a Web Intelligence document (WID)
within InfoView?
A. Local Settings
B. Browser Preferences
C. User Machine Settings
D. InfoView Preferences
Answer: D

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시험 이름: RSA (CSE RSA enVision Essentials (new update))
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NO.1 What happens if an event source device type is not immediately recognized by RSA enVision? (Check
the one best answer.)
A.It will be defined as "unknown" and for a limited time enVision will collect event data it generates
B.Data from that device will be discarded until the device type can be defined
C.An alert is generated by default to call an administrator's attention to the device
D.The UDS Service will create a parsing XML file for the device and place data in the NIC Parse Cache
Answer:A

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NO.2 In the RSA enVision UDS process, what is the purpose of performing Data Reduction steps? (Check the
one best answer.)
A.Improve speed and efficiency of data processing
B.Compress unsupported device data prior to storage
C.Apply ISO-approved abbreviations to message text strings
D.Decrease the rate that unsupported device data is collected
Answer:A

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NO.3 What two tasks does UDS complete when the command "uds reate" is executed to create a device?
(Check the two best answers.)
A.Creates the files .ini, client.txt, vendor.txt and msg.xml
B.Immediately starts collecting data from the new device
C.Identifies all associated devices that have been configured
D.Create all directory structures required for the device
E.Lists all devices to verify that the device does not already exist
Answer:A D

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NO.4 Why would the checkbox of a device type be grayed out On the Manage Device Types screen? (Check
the one best answer.)
A.It's not licensed
B.Device is unknown but data can be collected
C.Device is known but not compatible with enVision
D.Device is associated with a monitored device within the NIC domain
Answer:D

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NO.5 How many Remote Collectors (RC) can each Database Server (D-SRV) support? (Check the one best
answer.)
A.Eight (8)
B.Ten (10)
C.Sixteen (16)
D.Thirty two (32)
Answer:C

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NO.6 What are three steps that are part of the device interpretation process using UDS? (Check the three
best answers.)
A.Configure devices to send log data to RSA enVision
B.Device identification (i.e. vendor, device name, class, sub-class, etc.)
C.Identification of device collection method
D.Message definition
E.List of known vulnerabilities
F.Data parsing
Answer:B D F

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NO.7 When initially setting up a multiple appliance site, only the D-SRV unit is connected to a LAN ?all of the
other units in the site then connect directly to the D-SRV.
A.True
B.False
Answer:B

RSA시험문제   050-V37-ENVCSE01인증   050-V37-ENVCSE01

NO.8 After creating a customized Report Menu system, which RSA enVision service(s) need to be re-started?
A.Only the NIC Webserver Service
B.The NIC Webserver and NIC Server Services
C.The NIC Webserver, NIC Server and NIC Locator Services
D.The NIC Webserver, NIC Server, NIC Locator, and NIC Packager Services
Answer:A

RSA기출문제   050-V37-ENVCSE01   050-V37-ENVCSE01

NO.9 True or false. If a conflict exists with the default enVision collection port after appliance installation, the
Collector Service can be modified to configure event collection on a different port.
A.True
B.false
Answer:A

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NO.10 What does RSA enVision do when it is set to auto-discover new devices? (Check the one best answer.)
A.Adds new supported devices automatically to the list of monitored devices in the Manage Monitored
Devices screen
B.Temporarily holds in the "New Device" cache and begins to collect data after it is approved by an
administrator
C.RSA enVision alerts members of the "administrators" group to add a new device to the list of monitored
devices
D.RSA enVision automatically exports device attributes to an XML file for an administrator to review
Answer:A

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NO.11 Which RSA enVision module is used to configure the enVision system as well as to monitor its health
and performance? (Check the one best answer.)
A.Overview module
B.Alerts Module
C.Analysis Module
D.Reports Module
Answer:A

RSA시험문제   050-V37-ENVCSE01   050-V37-ENVCSE01   050-V37-ENVCSE01

NO.12 When would you expect a difference between the log information captured by RSA enVision and the
log information generated by a device? (Check the one best answer.)
A.When the source IP address of the device is unknown to enVision.
B.When the device is configured to send only certain events to syslog.
C.When "Collect All Logs" is left unchecked in the Manage Devices screen.
D.When the device is a known device and enVision recognizes the events to be non-critical.
Answer:B

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NO.13 If a customer has a specific syslog that they would like to use as part of a demonstration, you can load it
into enVision for reporting and querying using which of the following? (Check the one best answer.)
A.The lsdata utility to import the syslog file
B.Copying the syslog file into the IPDB data directory
C.Using the Data Injector utility to collect data from the syslog file
D.Using the Custom Reports ?View External Data function of the administrative GUI
Answer:C

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NO.14 The administrator can use the RSA enVision's user authentication feature to complete what tasks?
(Check two answers.)
A.Use an existing Microsoft Active Directory authentication server
B.Associate administrative users with an authentication server
C.Require enVision users to change passwords on a periodic basis
D.Enforce a pre-defined set of 'prohibited passwords' based on a dictionary file
E.Utilize existing domain authenticated user accounts as the basis for enVision user accounts
Answer:A E

RSA   050-V37-ENVCSE01자격증   050-V37-ENVCSE01

NO.15 When setting up a Check Point firewall device, which of the following is a good practice that should be
completed first? (Check the one best answer.)
A.Stop and restart the Check Point Firewall Service
B.Stop and restart the enVision NIC Collector Service
C.Verify that the Check Point Log Viewer is receiving events
D.Set an 8-character key to establish an authenticated connection
Answer:C

RSA자료   050-V37-ENVCSE01   050-V37-ENVCSE01시험문제   050-V37-ENVCSE01

NO.16 When opening a connection in Event Explorer, you can define which of the following features? (Check
the three correct answers.)
A.Devices
B.Event categories
C.Log messages
D.Time frame
E.Local collector
Answer:A B D

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NO.17 In RSA enVision UDS development, Value Maps, Regular Expressions, and Functions are types of
which of the following? (Check the one best answer.)
A.Data Reduction
B.XML Parsing Rules
C.Conditional Variables
D.Summary Data Buckets
Answer:C

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NO.18 When creating a new enVision user account, which User Group is the account added to by default?
(Check the one best answer.)
A.Report-users
B.Administrators
C.Temporary-users
D.All-applications-users
Answer:D

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NO.19 When planning an RSA enVision installation, which statements below about the Site Name are
important considerations? (Check two answers.)
A.The Site Name must match an enVision domain name
B.The Site Name must be unique within an enVision domain and cannot be the same as the customer's
NetBIOS domain name
C.The Site Name must not contain any numeric or punctuation characters
D.The Site Name must have the same suffix as the Windows domain in which it resides
E.The Site Name must not match the name of any existing Windows domain in the network
Answer:B E

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NO.20 The UDS development process involves which of the following tasks? (Check two answers.)
A.Verifying XML syntax and parsing
B.Using XML to convert device logs to IPDB format
C.Mapping a device name to an existing enVision device
D.Creating an XML file to define header and message information
Answer:A D

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시험 번호/코드: 050-V71-CASECURID02
시험 이름: RSA (RSA SecurID Certified Administrator 7.1 Exam)
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NO.1 A user is trying to authenticate from their workstation to the RSA Authentication Manager but receives
an "Access Denied" message. The Server's log is showing the following error message: "Node secret
mismatch". What is a likely cause?
A. The sdconf.rec is missing from the Agent machine.
B. The user is not allowed to authenticate on that Agent.
C. The Agent has not been added into the Server database.
D. The secret key used to encrypt Agent communication has been deleted.
Answer: D

RSA자료   050-V71-CASECURID02   050-V71-CASECURID02기출문제

NO.2 RSA Authentication audit log records
A. can be archived using a scheduled job.
B. are only accessible by the Super Admin administrator.
C. are always deleted from the database when they are archived.
D. can be digitally signed by the administrator for archival storage protection.
Answer: A

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NO.3 An RSA SecurID tokencode is unique for each successful authentication because
A. a token periodically calculates a new code
B. the user continuously changes their secret PIN
C. the Node Secret is updated after each authentication
D. the Server's clock is set to Universal Coordinated Time (UTC)
Answer: A

RSA   050-V71-CASECURID02시험문제   050-V71-CASECURID02

NO.4 If the RSA Authentication Manager places a token into Next Tokencode Mode, and the user waits for
three minutes (three tokencode increments) to enter his/her next tokencode, what will be the expected
result?
A. The Server will not accept the value because it is not sequential.
B. The authentication will be successful even though the input was delayed.
C. The Server will ask for a third tokencode, so that it has two sequential codes.
D. The Server will assume that the token has been stolen, and disable the token.
Answer: A

RSA   050-V71-CASECURID02   050-V71-CASECURID02   050-V71-CASECURID02   050-V71-CASECURID02

NO.5 How many RSA Authentication Manager servers can be in a single Instance (maximum) under an
Enterprise license?
A. 1 database server and a single Server Node
B. 1 Primary server and up to 3 Replica servers
C. 1 database server and up to 4 Server Nodes
D. 1 Primary server and up to 15 Replica servers
Answer: C

RSA   050-V71-CASECURID02   050-V71-CASECURID02   050-V71-CASECURID02인증

NO.6 An RSA Authentication Manager is licensed for 500 users. The license must be upgraded if you want
to
A. assign more than 500 tokens to individual users.
B. import more than 500 token records into the database.
C. import more than 500 users from an LDAP directory source.
D. allow cross-realm authentication for more than 500 remote users.
Answer: A

RSA   050-V71-CASECURID02   050-V71-CASECURID02기출문제   050-V71-CASECURID02

NO.7 If a group has been defined with access times of 9 AM to 5 PM, Monday through Friday. When can a
member of that group log in?
A. at any time but must renew their login at 9 AM each day
B. during the specified time frame, but must log out by 5 PM
C. during that time frame and can remain logged in indefinitely
D. during that time frame but is automatically logged out at 5 PM
Answer: C

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NO.8 Operation between Windows, Linux and UNIX platforms is supported by RSA Authentication Manager
for which types of communications? (Choose two)
A. Agent to Server
B. Database Replication
C. Primary to Replica Server
D. Trusted Realm authentication
E. Database server to Server Node
Answer: A,D

RSA   050-V71-CASECURID02인증   050-V71-CASECURID02자격증   050-V71-CASECURID02기출문제   050-V71-CASECURID02인증

NO.9 The RSA Authentication Manager has settings where (by default) three incorrect PASSCODES will
invoke Next Tokencode Mode. Where is this configuration setting located?
A. Within the Setup menu.
B. Within the Identity menu.
C. Within the Polices menu.
D. Within the RADIUS menu.
Answer: C

RSA   050-V71-CASECURID02   050-V71-CASECURID02인증   050-V71-CASECURID02인증   050-V71-CASECURID02

NO.10 If a Super Admin administrator can view a certain set of user records in the Authentication Manager
database but a Help Desk administrator can not,
A. the Help Desk administrator should be assigned a Super Admin role.
B. the Super Admin administrator's privileges should be set to 'delegatable'.
C. the Help Desk administrator scope may not allow viewing of these users.
D. this would be considered a normal difference between these two types of administrators.
Answer: C

RSA   050-V71-CASECURID02   050-V71-CASECURID02

NO.11 A user reports a problem while trying to authenticate. The administrator checks recent activities and
sees that the last message associated with this user is "New Pin Cancelled." What is the most likely
cause?
A. The user is not in New PIN mode.
B. The user is not in the server database.
C. The user did not complete the New PIN operation successfully.
D. The user is not authorized to authenticate through this Authentication Agent.
Answer: C

RSA   050-V71-CASECURID02   050-V71-CASECURID02기출문제   050-V71-CASECURID02

NO.12 Authenticators should NOT be shared by multiple users because of
A. license concerns.
B. hostname conflicts.
C. database restrictions.
D. repudiation concerns.
Answer: D

RSA기출문제   050-V71-CASECURID02   050-V71-CASECURID02기출문제   050-V71-CASECURID02   050-V71-CASECURID02

NO.13 If multiple users request On-demand Tokencodes but are not receiving them, you would want to
confirm that
A. the users are not in New PIN mode.
B. SMS or SMTP services are configured correctly.
C. the tokens assigned to the users have not expired.
D. the tokens assigned to the users have been resynchronized.
Answer: B

RSA시험문제   050-V71-CASECURID02   050-V71-CASECURID02 pdf   050-V71-CASECURID02최신덤프

NO.14 You are assisting a user who is working offline on a Microsoft Windows Authentication Agent. If you
provide this user with an Offline Emergency Passcode, you must tell the user
A. to use the code in place of the RSA SecurID token passcode without using a PIN.
B. to use the code in place of the RSA SecurID tokencode but continue to use the existing PIN.
C. to use the code in place of the RSA SecurID tokencode but you will also issue a temporary
replacement PIN.
D. to first enter their Windows password and, when prompted for the Emergency Access Code, enter the
code that you provide.
Answer: A

RSA덤프   050-V71-CASECURID02   050-V71-CASECURID02최신덤프

NO.15 A feature of the RADIUS protocol is
A. the ability to track a user's login and logout time (RADIUS accounting).
B. the computer time setting can be checked remotely (remote time service).
C. a user's default login name becomes their password (RADIUS login synchronization).
D. the user Profile and Attribute Value Pair matches their tokencode (RADIUS token matching).
Answer: A

RSA   050-V71-CASECURID02   050-V71-CASECURID02   050-V71-CASECURID02

NO.16 When creating and running RSA Authentication Manager version 7.1 reports, the administrator has the
option of (Choose two)
A. allowing the report to run with the scope of the administrator who is running the report.
B. defining report criteria by writing an SQL query to extract data directly from the database.
C. customizing a report template by adding and removing columns and applying data filters.
D. creating and running reports from a Replica database server if the Primary server is down.
E. previewing the report output before the report is run to make sure the desired data is included.
Answer: A,C

RSA   050-V71-CASECURID02   050-V71-CASECURID02   050-V71-CASECURID02자료

NO.17 Three consecutive log entries for one user contain the message "Authentication Method Failed", what
administrative action would NOT be appropriate?
A. resynchronize the token
B. set the user's PIN to Next Tokencode
C. assign a temporary Fixed Passcode for troubleshooting
D. check the system time of the RSA Authentication Manager host
Answer: B

RSA dump   050-V71-CASECURID02인증   050-V71-CASECURID02최신덤프   050-V71-CASECURID02

NO.18 RSA SecurID tokens are initially supplied with matching token records. After tokens are assigned,
deployed and used by end-users, what information might be overwritten if the original token records are
re-imported into the RSA Authentication Manager database.? (Choose two)
A. user assignment
B. tokencode values
C. Authentication Agent usage
D. token time offset information
E. system PIN parameter settings
Answer: A,D

RSA   050-V71-CASECURID02   050-V71-CASECURID02

NO.19 When assigning a user a Temporary Fixed Tokencode to replace a lost token, what is the default value
for the expiration period of that Tokencode?
A. 24 hours
B. 5 days
C. 14 days
D. 30 days
Answer: C

RSA pdf   050-V71-CASECURID02자격증   050-V71-CASECURID02기출문제   050-V71-CASECURID02   050-V71-CASECURID02자료   050-V71-CASECURID02기출문제

NO.20 An RSA Authentication Manager administrator would edit an Identity Attribute parameter
A. to ignore users with duplicate user names.
B. to store additional user information in a user record.
C. to specify an LDAP Bind DN and Bind DN password.
D. when the LDAP server is not in the same domain as the RSA Authentication Manager server.
Answer: B

RSA기출문제   050-V71-CASECURID02   050-V71-CASECURID02

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NO.1 The most common method of social engineering is:
A. Looking through users' trash for information
B. Calling users and asking for information
C. E-mailing users and asking for information
D. E-mail
Answer: B

Mile2   ML0-220자격증   ML0-220덤프   ML0-220
15.The full form of IDS is ____________
A. Intrusion Detection System
B. Intrusion Deactivation System
C. Information Distribution System
D. Intrusion Detection Software
Answer: A

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17.What is an Intranet?
A. A private network using World Wide Web technology
B. A private network using digital telephony services
C. A public network using World Wide Web technology
D. A public network using digital telephony services
Answer: A

Mile2 dump   ML0-220 dumps   ML0-220기출문제
18.Which of the following is the best description of" separation of duties"?
A. Assigning different parts of tasks to different employees
B. Employees are canted only the privileges necessary to perform their tasks
C. Each employee is granted specific information that is required to carry out the job
function
D. Screening employees before assigning them to a position
Answer: A

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19.Who is the main person responsible for installation and maintenance of the
computer systems?
A. Chief Executive Officer
B. System Supplier
C. System Designer
D. Business Process Owner
Answer: B

Mile2   ML0-220기출문제   ML0-220   ML0-220기출문제   ML0-220자료
20.You have a network address of 196.202.56.0 with four subnets. You wont to allow
for maximum number of Hosts. What is the
subnet mask you need to apply?
A. 255.255.255.224
B. 255.255.224.0
C. 255.255.255.128
D. 255.255.255.192
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following is true about authentication?
A. Authentication means that information can be accessed when needed by authorized
personnel
B. Authentication means that passwords can be accessed when needed by authorized
personnel
C. Authentication means the positive verification of the user/device ma system
D. Authentication means that only authorized persons modify information
Answer: C

Mile2   ML0-220   ML0-220최신덤프

NO.3 Which of the following is NOT a good practice for audit logs?
A. Audit Logs should be accessible to all users at all times
B. Audit Logs should be accessible to security personnel only
C. Audit Logs should contain unsuccessful login attempts
D. Audit Logs should not contain any passwords
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following rules related to a Business Continuity Plan/Disaster
Recovery Plan is not correct?
A. In order to facilitate recovery, a single plan should coverall locations
B. There should be requirements for forming a committee to decide a course of action.
These decisions should be made ahead of time
and incorporated into the plan
C. In its procedures and tasks, the plan should refer to functions, not specific individuals
D. Critical vendors should be contacted ahead of time to validate equipment that can be
obtained in a timely manner
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following is TRUE then transmitting Secret Information over the
network?
A. Secret Information should be transmitted in an encrypted form
B. Secret Information should be transmitted as a plain-text
C. Secret Information should be transmitted in a compressed form
D. Secret Information should be transmitted along with user id
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which out of the following is/are preventive measures against password sniffing?
A. Passwords must not be sent through email in plain text
B. Passwords must not be stored in plain text on any electronic media
C. Passwords may be electronically stored if encrypted
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.7 Your company's off site backup facility is intended to operate an information
processing facility, having no computer or
communications equipment, but having flooring, electrical wiring, air conditioning,
etc. This is better known as a____
A. Hot site
B. Duplicate processing facility
C. Cold site
D. Warm site
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following c1assify under techno crime?
A. Stolen customer account details
B. Virus attack
C. Server failure
D. Hurricane
Answer: A

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NO.9 Firewalls at this level know a great deal about what is going on and can be very
selective in granting access:
A. Layer 3
B. Layer 4
C. Layer 6
D. Layer 7
Answer: D

Mile2 dumps   ML0-220   ML0-220

NO.10 Can a user use Personal Certificates to control server access?
A. SSL can also be used to verify the users' identity to the server
B. NO, there is no such method
C. It can be used through web security
D. None of the above
Answer: A

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NO.11 Zip/Jaz drives, SyQuest, and Bemoulli boxes are very transportable and are often
the standard for:
A. Data exchange in many businesses
B. Data change in many businesses
C. Data compression in many businesses
D. Data interchange in many businesses
Answer: A

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NO.12 What are the challenges associated with VPN implementation?
A. Complexity of infrastructure
B. Addressing and routing and administration
C. Difficulty with centralized management of client policy
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.13 An alternate site configured with necessary system hardware, supporting
infrastructure and an on site staff able to respond to an
activation of a contingency plan 24 hours a day,7 days a week is a
A. Hot site
B. Cold site
C. Warm site
D. None of the above
Answer: A

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NO.14 The _____ application provides IP address-to-hostname or vice-versa lookup:
A. FTP
B. Telnet
C. DNS
D. ICMP
Answer: C

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NO.15 The Musical Instrument Digital Interface (MIDI) standard is used for digital music.
Which OSI layer does this standard belong to?
A. Session
B. Data Link
C. Application
D. Presentation
Answer: D

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